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A member of the EveAndersson.com community since April 9, 2012
- April 9, 2012
There are some obvious factors that must be considered - for the numbers 0-9 in base 10, each number occurs only occurs once, and thus in a completely random normal number, it each digit would have a 1/10 chance of appearing in any one place and would thus be expected to appear 10% of the time. In binary there are only two digits - 0 and 1 - but do they both have the same frequency? Think of the process of getting pi in binary. You would start with base 10. Do the numbers 0-9 in dec, when converted to binary, yield just as many 0's as 1's? Well, in fact, no. There are eleven 0's and fifteen 1's. From this knowledge, you would expect the infinite expansion of pi would be comprised of about 42.3% zeros and 57.7% ones. That's close to 57% ones, so problem solved.
-- (April 9, 2012)
on Frequency of Each Digit of Pi